| SS19: Saviour as YHWH How do you convince some religions that Jesus is YHWH in the OT and NT ? Sadly the Greek translation of the Hebrew word "YHWH" in the NT is "kurios", and this same term also applies to "adown" and "adonay" as well as "YHWH". So for the common man, who doesn't want to read Hebrew...can one find this golden gem about Jesus? 1Co 10:4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
Now some "theories of faith" say the Rock that followed them, was a shadow or type of Christ, because Christ never pre-existed.
P: "I agree the Father is Tsuwr and that Yeshua is cela. They are both my rocks. In De 32:15, the Rock is the Father. In 1 Cor.10:4, the Rock is Yeshua. However, Yeshua was not a literally existing Rock in the OT. He was only a Rock through types and shadows." More email discussions.
So regardless of your Scripture evidence, you cannot change a person's world view, if it is different to yours. The Author has emailed over 80 times, that Jesus has pre-existed.
There are three cross references to Special Writings in the NT quoting OT Special Writings, telling us that the Rock that followed them is a community reference to all three members of Elohiym.
Ro 9:33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.
The "rock" quoted here in Greek, is the Hebrew term "tsuwr", a symbol of the Father in heaven. When Paul writes the Special Writing in Hebrew, why doesn't he write "cela" rock followed them, but using the term "Holy Spiritual Father Rock" followed them and that "Rock" was Christ, suggests a community effort.
To a Jew in Paul's day, such a statement would be read as blasphemy. Notice what the SOP says:-
In Isaiah's prophecy, Christ is declared to be both a sure foundation and a stone of stumbling. The
apostle Peter, writing by inspiration of the Holy Spirit, clearly shows to whom Christ is a foundation
stone, and to whom a rock of offense:
So we would expect in the OT times of salvation, a community effort saved Israel...is this so?
Ex 23:20 Behold, I send an Angel (malak) "messenger" before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared.
My friend who says Jesus never pre-existed, is happy to read Hebrew carefully, yet sees "malak" as an angel, when it really means "messenger". Now which messenger has the name of the Father in him, and can forgive sin? The only Person that fits this description is Jesus, as Paul says the "Holy Spiritual Rock of the Father" that followed them was Christ.
This implies Christ is not the Father, nor the Holy Spirit, but that Jesus is the messenger for Elohiym. And this is what a "Son" in Hebrew does. A son "continues the family home over the nations" is exactly what Jesus as a messenger is doing. And only one of the family of Elohiym can do this. And this is the way in Hebrew, Paul wrote.
Ho 13:4 Yet I am the LORD (Jesus-YHWH) thy God (elohiym) "family power" from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god (elohiym) "family power" but me: for there is no saviour (yasha) beside me.
(KJV)
My friend is happy to quote these verses saying there can be only one true "Elohiym" , and one Saviour (yasha) who is Father-YHWH.
Is that so? So why doesn't the Father come and rescue (yasha) us personally from sin? Many do not even understand what death is in Scripture, and they say a Divine Being cannot die. The "yasha" does "die" for our "sin-offerings", who is called "yasha" in Hebrew, or Jesus in Greek.
Mt 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name YASHA: for he shall YASHA his people from their sins-offerings. (Ancient Hebrew)
It is Hebrew, to name persons from verbs of action. Jesus means our rescuer, as the term "yasha" means.
When I confronted my friend with these texts, that a rescuer cannot come afterwards in the NT, he says the verses above only reference those OT times, the term "besides" does not refer to a future time. How convenient.
Re 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world .(KJV)
The rescue from missing relationship from Elohiym, has to have been engineered by Elohiym before mankind was even created, because angels were found missing in heaven long before mankind even existed.
Now my friend who says Jesus never pre-existed says, Jesus was just present in the "loins of His Father". Really ? How can love (a relational concept) be all alone ?
One more piece of evidence, shadows and types. Is a shadow or type made from fiction figures first hidden in the loins of the Father, that become literal later on? Or is a shadow made
from something literal to begin with?
In this picture, imagine the Father's light, and the Holy Spirit blocking some of that light, making an overshadowed effect on Jesus, our messenger and rescuer, who takes upon Himself in humanity, mankind's sin-offerings.
To be a shadow and a type, Jesus has to have been eternal from eternity, to have promised Adam when He sinned that He would die for His missing. So when followers of Jesus in the OT did "missing relationship", they restored the "relationshhip back to Jesus" by sacrificing an innocent animal's "nephesh" because the promise was literal, the Divine relationship was literal, and the Divine Person they supported was also literal and real, and in love chose to support them despite their "missing relationship".
So when the Family Powers of Elohiym decided what to do about "missing relationship" with mankind, Elohiym decided to sent their Son, which means in Hebrew: "The family home continues over the nations". What would continue? The supreme love of Elohiym would continue over mankind, despite "missing relationship".
Thus "types and shadows" are made by a real Divine Person, who made a promise, and the promise to fully restore the "missing relationship" was shown to mankind first in symbols that were also real and literal, that represented the promises of Elohiym.
How should we study Scripture? Do we assume Hebrew words have different meanings depending upon context? Most scholars read Scripture that way, so they choose the meanings they want from contexts they choose, and ignore the other contexts that do not fit their thinking.
Isa 28:10 For "command" must be upon "command", "command" upon "command"; line upon line, line upon line; here "small", and there "small": (Ancient Hebrew)
This Special Writing is talking to those of "child like faith", who read Scripture as "children". Thus the "keep it simple in small doses method" is commanded in Scripture when we are teaching others, and when the Holy Spirit is teaching us.
The "commands of Jesus" must line up with the other "commands of Jesus", and each line of Scripture must line up with all the other lines of Scripture. We study the words in small doses, until we become learned to handle larger amounts of the WORD.
Now if you pick and choose your word meanings from some contexts and you do not line up all the contexts, you are breaking this Scripture Method in two places:-
For example, what does "elohiym" mean?
(1) Exodus 22:8 - If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought unto the judges [elohim] "family powers" , to see whether he have put his hand unto his neighbor's goods. (KJV)
(2) Ge 20:13 And it came to pass, when God (Elohiym with plural verb) "family powers" caused me to wander from my father's house, that I said unto her, This is thy kindness which thou shalt shew unto me; at every place whither we shall come, say of me, He is my brother.
(3) Ex 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god (elohiym) "family powers" to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.
(4) Ex 32:4 And he received them at their hand, and fashioned it with a graving tool, after he had made it a molten calf: and they said, These be thy gods (Elohiym with plural verb) "family powers", O Israel, which brought thee up out of the land of Egypt.
(5) Ge 1:1 In the beginning God (elohiym masculine singluar grammar "family power" created the heaven and the earth.
(6) Ge 1:26 And God (elohiym) "family powers" said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:
(7) Ge 1:27 So God (elohiym) "family powers" created man in his own image, in the image of God (elohiym) "family powers" created he him; male and female created he them.
My friend says there are other "elohiym" such as judges, and that the Father is the "one and only true Elohiym". Thus Jesus is just another "elohiym", whom the Father has chosen to save us from sin.
Such studies are picking and choosing which Hebrew words they wish to use and ignoring the minor problem ones. Gordon does the same thing for a few minor contexts that use "elohiym"
"So contrary to the expected rule of Elohim getting a singular verb, here Elohim gets a plural verb. Because of this plural verb, we could literally translate this phrase "gods caused me to wander". From this verse alone it indeed appears that Abraham worshipped multiple gods whom he believed had caused him to wander from his father's house. However, this hardly fits the overall picture."
A better more consistent approach to Hebrew, is to consider "Elohiym" for all contexts...to do what Scripture teachings tell us to do, to line up line upon line, command upon command, in small child like doses..
Here is Jeff Benner's mechanical translation of Exodus. The red highlight is added by the Author, and show the Hebrew word "elohiym". Notice Jeff Benner consistently translates "elohiym" as "elohyim powers" every time this Hebrew word is shown.
This is a faithful and wonderful start to translating the Hebrew. Such translations are possible.
However Jeff Benner does not show a NT picture of Elohiym:-
Eph 3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God (elohiym) "family power", who created all things by Jesus Christ:
A different picture of Elohiym, isn't it? Only found in one Special Scripture place, here.
Now with "child like faith" lining up all the contexts of Elohiym, thousands of references, across both OT and NT contexts, we have this simple picture:-
(1) In Exodus 22:8, when you see a judge, you see one of several persons who are also a judge, but their "family power" is the authority to be a single source of power and authority over you. It does not matter which person the judge was that day...the same "family power" judged you that day.
(2) In Genesis 20:13, "family" is both a plural term and a singular term, at the same time. Sometimes the "family powers" create as a "Family", and here "the family members" caused Abram to wander from his father's house.
(3) In Exodus 7:1, when YHWH made Moses into "Elohiym" before Pharoah, Moses came to Pharoah as a "family power" speaking before Pharoah with the Authority and Power that belongs to the Father alone. It does not matter if different persons represent the Father, the same "family power" flowed from the Father, via Moses to Pharaoh. Note also Moses and Aaron were brothers, a simile of a real family on earth. See more
(4) In Exodus 32:4, the pagan worship of "elohiym", such as when Israel made a golden calf, this idol represented "elohiym". The deity was only a single idol, but the object represented a "family deity of powers". The first letter of Hebrew is a "bull" that represents the "strong Family authority", hence why they fashioned the image.
(5) In Genesis 1:1, "The whole family" engineered the heavens and the earth. "The member of the Family chosen for this act was Jesus, but all the Family powers flow via Him (masculine He singular in grammar).
(6) In Genesis 1:26, The members of the Family, the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, are all present as "us" and "they make mankind in their image" (Just remember in Hebrew a Family is considered one Being, referenced as masculine He singular)
(7) In Genesis 1:27, The "masculine He singular" creates mankind "gender male" and "gender female" as two personalities of loving, but in Hebrew this is considered "one Being". The "femaleness-love" was built out of Adam, not created out of Adam. The components were already inside Adam.
This is a picture simile of the Family of Elohiym, when Elohiym made mankind a little lower than Elohiym ( Psalms 8:5)
Now let's make one child like picture:-
The fact that Jews consider this "family power" as monotheism is correct, for in Hebrew a "family" is considered a "single numerical one Being", two personalities of parents, or three personalities if we add children, but a single Flow of monotheism.
When Elohiym engineered mankind from the ground, the Being stood in Eden all alone. Adam noticed his loving was not complete like the other kinds he named. So Elohiym made mankind into two personalities of love, the maleness-love person and the femaleness-love person.
And when in marriage the two personalities become one flesh, this is in Hebrew, correct. And this is why Elohiym never corrected the Jews for worshipping Elohiym as "one Strong Authority".
Now in the oldest Hebrew scroll from times before the great flood, when mankind existed among dinosours alot, there are three common functional descriptors of Elohiym:
Job 40:1 Moreover the LORD (YHWH ) "Jesus as YHWH" answered Job, and said,
In the book of Job, "elohiym" is divided into three functional descriptors of Elohiym, the YHWH, meaning "He who Exists" a reference to Jesus or the Father; the Shadday which means in Hebrew "pressed to the breasts with active hands" or Holy Spirit, and Eloah, the Father.
The Hebrew word "breast" is masculine in grammar, even though breasts function mainly in Scripture similes with females, in Hebrew touching a married woman's breasts is the same as touching the married man. They are the same, hence why it is considered in the masculine grammar.
We need to consider the Holy Spirit expressing femaleness-love, just as the Father expresses maleness-love, and the Jesus-YHWH who continues that family love over nations of mankind. Shalom
For more, see Jesus is YHWH
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